Both Biden and trump were around long before the big bang.
And Trump remembers God coming up to him. Trump explained what happened then, "God said, with tears coming down his eyes, which was rare for such a powerful entity, sir, you are the greatest man that I have ever created. Only you will be able to save the world, but be wary of the liberal vermin and the immigrants that will poison your blood and the liars. Someday you will sell pieces of your jacket and those pieces of fabric will be historical and valuvaluable. You are blessed"
I disagree. It’s a yes or no question over which you have no power and how would the existence or non-existence of a deity change how you live your life? We should all be trying to be good people either way.
The question more accurately should be "do I believe in God". And I disagree with your post. It's not a yes or no question. Belief in God can be on a continuum. Some are fervent believers and some might say they believe but don't pray or otherwise act as if the believe and others are agnostic and some just don't believe at all.
And how you answer that question could be very important. If there is a God to help and guide you and you never pray or seek a relationship with him that would be sad.
If there is no God and you spend a life praying to no one that is real, that would be sad too.
I agree with the previous poster. It is important.
We can all have our own intensity into how much we like or appreciate something. “Does pasta exist?” and “how much do you like pasta?” are two different questions, with the first requiring us to see what evidence is there that pasta exists while the second presumes its existence and asks an opinion on preference.
If a god showed up in Times Square today and demonstrated supernatural powers, yes, that would be astounding, demonstrating existence and power beyond the observable Universe. But whether or not that happens, I am still going to try to be kind and decent to the people I meet in life.
Two up quarks and one down quark in a proton yields a positive charge
I find that when something doesn’t make sense scientifically, a mysterious force is the answer.
Positively charged Protons by all rights should repel each other in the nucleus. To explain this apparent contradiction, enter the “Strong Force,,” which conveniently doesn’t affect electrons.
It’s an exchange of mesons.
But with just about anything, if you drill something down far enough, you’re going to get to the four fundamental forces, which split shortly after the Big Bang (bringing us full circle to the original topic).
At least in the New Testament you have different people describing the same event.
There’s the Gospel of Mark written anonymously about 30-40 years after Jesus’ death, which then (along with “Q”) served as the basis for much of the Gospels of Matthew and Luke. The Gospel of John was written about another 30-40 years later by an author that had knowledge of the Matthew and Luke gospels.
I find that when something doesn’t make sense scientifically, a mysterious force is the answer.
Positively charged Protons by all rights should repel each other in the nucleus. To explain this apparent contradiction, enter the “Strong Force,,” which conveniently doesn’t affect electrons.
It’s an exchange of mesons.
But with just about anything, if you drill something down far enough, you’re going to get to the four fundamental forces, which split shortly after the Big Bang (bringing us full circle to the original topic).
Conventional definitions, like four fundamental forces, always fall short. Electromagnetic and Gravity are considered two different forces. Yet the center of the Earth, which produces the gravity is a giant magnet.
It’s the same with muscle fibers. It used to be type 1&2. When that fell short, we got 2x, 2a etc. when what we really have is a range of fibers.
I’m not saying I have all the answers but there are clearly a lot of holes in our knowledge and it’s gonna take breaking of conventions to make advances.
At least in the New Testament you have different people describing the same event.
There’s the Gospel of Mark written anonymously about 30-40 years after Jesus’ death, which then (along with “Q”) served as the basis for much of the Gospels of Matthew and Luke. The Gospel of John was written about another 30-40 years later by an author that had knowledge of the Matthew and Luke gospels.
Did you get this from an atheist website?
There's no evidence that the apostle Mark didn't write his own gospel. He was a contemporary of Jesus.
John was a contemporary and apostle of Jesus and 90% of the details on Jesus in his gospel are not in the others. He clearly didn't copy.
Would say any WW2 veteran who wrote his memoir in 1980s or later was a fraud and couldn't possibly have been in the war? The text being written after Jesus' death means nothing.
The Q theory is garbage.
This post was edited 18 seconds after it was posted.
For someone who contains the infinite, one pathway surely seems limiting and unimaginative. What about people who have not been reached by the Gospel due to extreme isolation, such as the North Sentinelese? Surely God must have found a way to reach them to ensure his creations can avoid eternal darkness and fiery damnation?
There’s the Gospel of Mark written anonymously about 30-40 years after Jesus’ death, which then (along with “Q”) served as the basis for much of the Gospels of Matthew and Luke. The Gospel of John was written about another 30-40 years later by an author that had knowledge of the Matthew and Luke gospels.
Did you get this from an atheist website?
There's no evidence that the apostle Mark didn't write his own gospel. He was a contemporary of Jesus.
John was a contemporary and apostle of Jesus and 90% of the details on Jesus in his gospel are not in the others. He clearly didn't copy.
Would say any WW2 veteran who wrote his memoir in 1980s or later was a fraud and couldn't possibly have been in the war? The text being written after Jesus' death means nothing.
The Q theory is garbage.
Virtually no biblical scholar today believes that the Gospels were written by contemporaries of Jesus. John was written in modern day Turkey sometime between 90 and 110 CE. That, the fact that it is not directly based on Mark, Matthew and Luke and the fact that Christianity had changed in the additional decades are reasons why it is so distinct from the synoptic gospels. It’s why it’s the only of four where Jesus claims divinity.
But with just about anything, if you drill something down far enough, you’re going to get to the four fundamental forces, which split shortly after the Big Bang (bringing us full circle to the original topic).
Conventional definitions, like four fundamental forces, always fall short. Electromagnetic and Gravity are considered two different forces. Yet the center of the Earth, which produces the gravity is a giant magnet.
It’s the same with muscle fibers. It used to be type 1&2. When that fell short, we got 2x, 2a etc. when what we really have is a range of fibers.
I’m not saying I have all the answers but there are clearly a lot of holes in our knowledge and it’s gonna take breaking of conventions to make advances.
The Earth, like all other forms of mass, bends spacetime and produces gravitational attraction. The core of the Earth produces a magnetic field because it’s a giant ball of spinning iron and nickel.
There's no evidence that the apostle Mark didn't write his own gospel. He was a contemporary of Jesus.
John was a contemporary and apostle of Jesus and 90% of the details on Jesus in his gospel are not in the others. He clearly didn't copy.
Would say any WW2 veteran who wrote his memoir in 1980s or later was a fraud and couldn't possibly have been in the war? The text being written after Jesus' death means nothing.
The Q theory is garbage.
Virtually no biblical scholar today believes that the Gospels were written by contemporaries of Jesus. John was written in modern day Turkey sometime between 90 and 110 CE. That, the fact that it is not directly based on Mark, Matthew and Luke and the fact that Christianity had changed in the additional decades are reasons why it is so distinct from the synoptic gospels. It’s why it’s the only of four where Jesus claims divinity.
They found a fragment of the Gospel of John in Turkey that was carbon dated to have been created between 94 and 138 CE. Assuming that this is the original document is silly.
We don't assume the writings of the Roman Empire only existed in the mind of some monk because the hard copies are from the middle ages.
No biblical scholar today has any idea when the gospels were written because the source documents are all lost.
Paul died in 67 AD. His letters are contemporary with the supposed writers of the gospels and his letters confirm the authenticity of much of what was written in them whether they were written before or after his letters.
No they are not. Zoroastrianism and the polytheistic believers in Sumer, Assyria, Egypt, Babylon, etc. were on this earth well before a narrative of Yahweh was around.
It didn't start with Genesis because the Hebrews were not a tribe until later.
So we cannot automatically say that the Truth is in Genesis.
before the Yahweh narrative, perhaps, but the Elohim narrative seems older and may date to Akkadian era
It's just like people who claim the earth is round. How does that even make sense? It's common sense that everything would just fall off the sides of the earth into a big pile if the earth was ball shaped.
Virtually no biblical scholar today believes that the Gospels were written by contemporaries of Jesus. John was written in modern day Turkey sometime between 90 and 110 CE. That, the fact that it is not directly based on Mark, Matthew and Luke and the fact that Christianity had changed in the additional decades are reasons why it is so distinct from the synoptic gospels. It’s why it’s the only of four where Jesus claims divinity.
They found a fragment of the Gospel of John in Turkey that was carbon dated to have been created between 94 and 138 CE. Assuming that this is the original document is silly.
We don't assume the writings of the Roman Empire only existed in the mind of some monk because the hard copies are from the middle ages.
No biblical scholar today has any idea when the gospels were written because the source documents are all lost.
Paul died in 67 AD. His letters are contemporary with the supposed writers of the gospels and his letters confirm the authenticity of much of what was written in them whether they were written before or after his letters.
Where the internal evidence is concerned, the clues given as to the Gospel’s real author provide little correlation with the New Testament traditions about John Mark. The author of our text shows unfamiliarity with the geography of Palestine (e.g. 5.1; 6.45; 7.31; 8.22; 10.1; 11.1), Jewish customs (7.2-4; 10.2; 14.1; 14.64) and even the Jewish leadership groups (e.g. 3.6; 6.17; 8.15; 12.13). The Gospel was written in Greek with Gentiles in mind (compare e.g. the Aramaic translations in 3.17; 5.41; 7.11; 7.3414.26; 15.22, 34) and offers harsh criticism of Jews and Judaism, a subject I shall take up later. Peter is not significantly more prominent in Mark than he is in the other Gospels (for which Petrine authority is not claimed), and an unflattering picture is frequently painted of him (e.g. 8.33; 9.5-6; 14.30-1, 66ff.). It is pure romantic fiction, moreover, to suppose that in 14.51-2 we have the hallmarks of eye-witness testimony and that there John Mark is signing his name to his work. While the vivid details within the Gospel indicate the author’s closeness to the oral tradition, the nature and variety of the material to be found in Mark, as form critics have pointed out, testifies to the fact that the Gospel is a product of a long process of ‘community tradition’ and not of direct eye-witness testimony. In sum, it is the only direct external evidence of the Papias tradition which supports the traditional view of authorship and this evidence is problematic. The internal evidence of the text, which is ultimately decisive, tilts strongly against it. Indeed without Papias’ testimony the Gospel itself would hardly have suggested it. When we consider, however, that is was the religious value of the Gospel which led the early church to assert its link with Peter and not vice versa, then the matter of its actual authorship is not ultimately decisive for the question of its theology. What does matter is that this anonymous writer, whoever he was, created, to our knowledge, the first extensive and coherent narrative account of the teaching and activity of Jesus, an early literary representation which was at the same time a religious interpretation of traditions about the founder of Christianity which were circulating in the first-century Mediterranean world. But how was it written and where in the Mediterranean world was it composed? A general consensus would now accept a date not much earlier than 65 CE and not much later than 75, that is, some time before or after the fall of Jerusalem which occurred in 70. A substantially earlier date is usually dismissed since it takes insufficient account of the development of the tradition before Mark as well as the internal evidence (especially of chapter 13) which suggests that events in the sixties formed the backdrop for the final form of the text. Where opinions differ would be in the fixing of a more precise date within this general period. Some would argue for the mid-sixties, that is, in the aftermath of the Neronian persecution, and this would explain the evangelist’s interest in the subject of sufferings, persecution and martyrdom (e.g. 1.14; 4.17; 6.17-29; 8.31-9.1; 9.11-13; 30-2; 10.29-30, 32-4, 38-9 45; 13.9, 11-13; 14.41). Others would opt for the second half of the sixties during the period of unrest and apocalyptic fervour occasioned by both the Romano-Jewish War and the civil war throughout the Empire (e.g. 13.6-8, 17-23, 24-31). Others still, taking the prediction of the destruction of the Temple as vaticinium ex eventu (13.1-2) or prophecy after the event, would hold that it was written shortly after the fall of Jerusalem when eschatological expectation had perhaps begun to be tempered by the delay in Jesus’ second return or parousia (e.g. 13.10, 32-7). This would be my own view. Where the Gospel’s theology is concerned, the more precise datings are not hugely significant, except insofar as the earlier of these three datings might lead us perhaps to accord more significance to the theme of ‘suffering discipleship’ in Mark’s theology, and the latter datings to the importance of eschatology.
Where provenance is concerned, four hypotheses dominate the field, namely Rome, Galilee, Antioch and small-town, rural Syria. The first of these, Rome, is the traditional place of origin for Mark’s Gospel. It is supported by external evidence (chiefly the Anti-Marcionite Prologue, Irenaeus and Clement of Alexandria) but this again may simply be a deduction from 1 Peter 5.13 where Mark, Peter and Rome (or ‘Babylon’) are concerned. Certain internal clues have been adduced in its favour such as frequent Latinsism (e.g. 5.9 legion; 6.27 speculator or military executioner; 12.42 quadrans, a Roman coin), the indications of Gentile addressees or the evidence which links the Gospel with the Neronian persecution in 64, or the anti-Jewish sentiments prevailing shortly after 70 in consequence of the Romano-Jewish War. None of these is obviously decisive. The fact that Mark came to be used by Matthew and Luke within a relatively short time after its composition suggests to some that it emanated from an important church-centre like Rome but this consideration has to be balanced with the evidence of its relative neglect in subsequent church history.
The Theology of the Gospel of Mark William Telford
As just one example, Mark 7:31 says that Jesus left Tyre and went through Sidon to the Sea of Galilee, despite the fact that Sidon is in the exact opposite direction of the Sea of Galilee when departing from Tyre.
I can do this with the other gospels if you’re interested.
They found a fragment of the Gospel of John in Turkey that was carbon dated to have been created between 94 and 138 CE. Assuming that this is the original document is silly.
We don't assume the writings of the Roman Empire only existed in the mind of some monk because the hard copies are from the middle ages.
No biblical scholar today has any idea when the gospels were written because the source documents are all lost.
Paul died in 67 AD. His letters are contemporary with the supposed writers of the gospels and his letters confirm the authenticity of much of what was written in them whether they were written before or after his letters.
Where the internal evidence is concerned, the clues given as to the Gospel’s real author provide little correlation with the New Testament traditions about John Mark. The author of our text shows unfamiliarity with the geography of Palestine (e.g. 5.1; 6.45; 7.31; 8.22; 10.1; 11.1), Jewish customs (7.2-4; 10.2; 14.1; 14.64) and even the Jewish leadership groups (e.g. 3.6; 6.17; 8.15; 12.13). The Gospel was written in Greek with Gentiles in mind (compare e.g. the Aramaic translations in 3.17; 5.41; 7.11; 7.3414.26; 15.22, 34) and offers harsh criticism of Jews and Judaism, a subject I shall take up later. Peter is not significantly more prominent in Mark than he is in the other Gospels (for which Petrine authority is not claimed), and an unflattering picture is frequently painted of him (e.g. 8.33; 9.5-6; 14.30-1, 66ff.). It is pure romantic fiction, moreover, to suppose that in 14.51-2 we have the hallmarks of eye-witness testimony and that there John Mark is signing his name to his work. While the vivid details within the Gospel indicate the author’s closeness to the oral tradition, the nature and variety of the material to be found in Mark, as form critics have pointed out, testifies to the fact that the Gospel is a product of a long process of ‘community tradition’ and not of direct eye-witness testimony. In sum, it is the only direct external evidence of the Papias tradition which supports the traditional view of authorship and this evidence is problematic. The internal evidence of the text, which is ultimately decisive, tilts strongly against it. Indeed without Papias’ testimony the Gospel itself would hardly have suggested it. When we consider, however, that is was the religious value of the Gospel which led the early church to assert its link with Peter and not vice versa, then the matter of its actual authorship is not ultimately decisive for the question of its theology. What does matter is that this anonymous writer, whoever he was, created, to our knowledge, the first extensive and coherent narrative account of the teaching and activity of Jesus, an early literary representation which was at the same time a religious interpretation of traditions about the founder of Christianity which were circulating in the first-century Mediterranean world. But how was it written and where in the Mediterranean world was it composed? A general consensus would now accept a date not much earlier than 65 CE and not much later than 75, that is, some time before or after the fall of Jerusalem which occurred in 70. A substantially earlier date is usually dismissed since it takes insufficient account of the development of the tradition before Mark as well as the internal evidence (especially of chapter 13) which suggests that events in the sixties formed the backdrop for the final form of the text. Where opinions differ would be in the fixing of a more precise date within this general period. Some would argue for the mid-sixties, that is, in the aftermath of the Neronian persecution, and this would explain the evangelist’s interest in the subject of sufferings, persecution and martyrdom (e.g. 1.14; 4.17; 6.17-29; 8.31-9.1; 9.11-13; 30-2; 10.29-30, 32-4, 38-9 45; 13.9, 11-13; 14.41). Others would opt for the second half of the sixties during the period of unrest and apocalyptic fervour occasioned by both the Romano-Jewish War and the civil war throughout the Empire (e.g. 13.6-8, 17-23, 24-31). Others still, taking the prediction of the destruction of the Temple as vaticinium ex eventu (13.1-2) or prophecy after the event, would hold that it was written shortly after the fall of Jerusalem when eschatological expectation had perhaps begun to be tempered by the delay in Jesus’ second return or parousia (e.g. 13.10, 32-7). This would be my own view. Where the Gospel’s theology is concerned, the more precise datings are not hugely significant, except insofar as the earlier of these three datings might lead us perhaps to accord more significance to the theme of ‘suffering discipleship’ in Mark’s theology, and the latter datings to the importance of eschatology.
Where provenance is concerned, four hypotheses dominate the field, namely Rome, Galilee, Antioch and small-town, rural Syria. The first of these, Rome, is the traditional place of origin for Mark’s Gospel. It is supported by external evidence (chiefly the Anti-Marcionite Prologue, Irenaeus and Clement of Alexandria) but this again may simply be a deduction from 1 Peter 5.13 where Mark, Peter and Rome (or ‘Babylon’) are concerned. Certain internal clues have been adduced in its favour such as frequent Latinsism (e.g. 5.9 legion; 6.27 speculator or military executioner; 12.42 quadrans, a Roman coin), the indications of Gentile addressees or the evidence which links the Gospel with the Neronian persecution in 64, or the anti-Jewish sentiments prevailing shortly after 70 in consequence of the Romano-Jewish War. None of these is obviously decisive. The fact that Mark came to be used by Matthew and Luke within a relatively short time after its composition suggests to some that it emanated from an important church-centre like Rome but this consideration has to be balanced with the evidence of its relative neglect in subsequent church history.
The Theology of the Gospel of Mark William Telford
As just one example, Mark 7:31 says that Jesus left Tyre and went through Sidon to the Sea of Galilee, despite the fact that Sidon is in the exact opposite direction of the Sea of Galilee when departing from Tyre.
I can do this with the other gospels if you’re interested.
Telford's entire argument assumes that the gospels were written in Greek originally. There is absolutely zero evidence that this is the case. Translation has always been tricky and even using the much more well known Greek as a source there are multiple variations of the translation. It could very well be that the originals story was spread by word of mouth and got written down by a Greek who didn't know the geography and got things wrong. Without an original source document it is impossible to know what the truth is.
If you gave this much scrutiny to Aristotle or Homer and any Roman author you would be forced to conclude that none of them existed.